Pharmacology Flashcards Mixed

Pharmacology Flashcards

Pharmacology Part 1

How is methotrexate cleared?

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By the kidneys

Pharmacology Part 1
Pharmacology

What is Glucparidase used for?

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Methotrexate toxicity

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which breast cancer chemotherapy agent should not be given when patients have elevated bilirubin?

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Taxanes

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the effect called when dermatitis develops in a radiation field weeks to months after radiation when the patient is now exposed to chemotherapy?

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Radiation recall effect

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which common beverage should be avoided while using imatinib?

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Grapefruit juice

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the potency ratio between intravenous and oral morphine?

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3:1

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which premedications are needed for dose dense Adriamycin?

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5-HT targeting anti-emetic, steroids, neurokinin – 1 targeting agent

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which gout medication should be used continuously with 6-mercaptopurine?

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Allopurinol

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is very specific peripheral nervous system side effect of oxaliplatin?

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Cold sensory neuropathy

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which enzyme converts capecitabine to 5-FU ?

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Thymidylate Phosphatase

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the major bone marrow side effect with temozolomide?

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Lymphocytopenia

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What are some long-term side effects with interferon alpha – 2b treatment?

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Neutropenia, liver transaminase elevation, depression, fatigue

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the target of Apripetant?

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Neurokinin – 1

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the relationship between FOLFOX and warfarin?

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Reduction in warfarin metabolism

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is a very large central nervous system viral infection that can occur with rituximab?

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PML

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which antidepressants can be used during tamoxifen therapy to help with side effects?

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The venlafaxine and citalopram, because of low CYP2D6 inhibitors should

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How can you abrogate the late term / chronic diarrhea with irinotecan?

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Loperamide and quinolones

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which medication is given as a pre-medication for iriniotecan diarrhea prevention?

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Atropine

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which enzyme metabolizes irinotecan?

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UGT1A1

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What did be CONFIRM clinical trial for fulvestrant show?

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500 mg is superior to 250 mg

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which pancreatic cancer chemotherapy agent can cause DIC/TTP MAHA?

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Gemcitabine

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Is there a creatinine clearance cut off for using capecitabine?

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30

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Due morbidly obese patients require ideal body weight or actual body weight for chemotherapy dosing?

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Actual body weight

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the difference between neutropenia management in ABVD vs R-CHOP?

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Growth factors should be avoided with ABVD

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

In which 2 cancers is carboplatin inferior to cisplatin?

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Bladder cancer and testicular cancer

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which enzyme causes severe side effects with 5-FU leading to myelosuppression and severe stomatitis?

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DPD – Dihydropyrimidine Dehydrogenase

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which cardiovascular side effects can be seen with infusional 5-FU?

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Coronary vasospasm

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Do infusion reactions increase or decrease with subsequent cycles of Cetuximab?

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Decrease

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What cardio vascular side effect can be seen with paclitaxel?

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Bradycardia

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which cardiotoxic chemotherapy is excreted by the liver?

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Doxorubicin

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Is Methotrexate excreted by the liver or kidney?

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Kidney

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the mechanism of action of topotecan?

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Topoisomerase I inhibition

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

After Binding with CD20 what processes cause cell death with Rituximab?

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ADCC and CDC

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the primary side effect difference between infusional and bolus 5-FU ?

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Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How can you manage an infusion reaction with paclitaxel despite steroids?

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Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the mechanism of action of Omacetaxin for CML?

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Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the primary side effect with Bosutinib?

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Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which CDK 4/6 inhibitor has the highest incidence of diarrhea ?

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Abemaciclib

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Does abemaciclib target CDK 4 or 6 with more affinity ?

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CDK4

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How should you initially manage a mild infusion reaction from Paclitaxel ?

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Slow the rate of infusion.

Pharmacology
Pharmacology Part 2

What did the ALSYMPCA trial assess in metastatic prostate cancer ?

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Radium-223 in bone metastases

Pharmacology Part 2
Pharmacology Part 2

Which 5-HT3 receptor antagonist is approved for acute and delayed nausea vomiting?

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Palonosetron

Pharmacology Part 2
Pharmacology

What is in major side effect with BCNU wafer for glioblastoma?

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Delayed myelosuppression

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the toxic metabolite of cyclophosphamide?

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Acrolein

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Is there a need for antifungal prophylaxis while inducing AML?

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Yes – posaconzaole preferred

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How can you treat low risk neutropenic fever?

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Oral antibiotics

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Should hepatitis B surface antigen positive, surface antibody negative patients be treated with antiviral therapy while on rituximab?

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Yes

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the “payload” of ado-trastuzumab?

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Maitansine

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is an immune-mediated side effects seen with Fludarabine ?

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AIHA

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What are the major side effects are seen with deferasirox?

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Renal and liver failure, gastrointestinal bleeding

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is a common cardiovascular side effect with dasatinib treatment for CML?

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Pleural effusions

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What are the major side effects effect seen with VEGF inhibition?

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Heart failure, hypertension, hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What over the counter items will affect imatinib metabolism?

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St john’s Wart

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which chemotherapy agents are okay to treat breast cancer during pregnancy?

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AC , do not use taxanes, anti-estrogen therapy, Her2 targeting agents

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which drugs target Topo II?

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Anthracyclines

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What does UGT1A1 do?

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Metabolizes SN-38 by glucuronidation

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the active metabolite of Irinotecan?

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SN-38

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the target of Irinotecan?

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Topoisomerase 1

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is endoxifen the active metabolite of?

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Tamoxifen

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the maximum tolerated drop in ejection fraction with Her2 directed therapy such as trastuzumab?

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15%
If no resolution by 8 weeks and discontinue medication

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which agents used in hematology and oncology can cause PRLS?

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Cyclosporine, tacrolimus, bevacizumab

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How can you manage seizures associated with enzalutamide?

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Discontinue medications

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the difference between Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis?

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Stevens-Johnson syndrome is less than 10% body surface area
Toxic epidermal necrolysis is greater than 30% body surface area

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is seen immediately with infusion-related reactions?

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Type I IgE mediated
Treatment involves discontinuation of medication, epinephrine, steroids, antihistamine

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What chromosome derangement can be seen with Etoposide?

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11q23 deletion

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

With cardiac and central nervous system side effects can be seen with Bevacizumab?

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Deep venous thrombosis, myocardial infarction, stroke

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What are 2 very rare side effects with granulocyte growth factor?

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Splenic rupture and acute respiratory distress syndrome

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What percentage of febrile neutropenia should prompt growth factor support?

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20%

Pharmacology
prostate cancer

How is apalutamide approved in the US by the FDA ?

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In combination with ADT for metastatic CSPC

prostate cancer
prostate cancer

Which clinical trial showed an improvement in OS for mCSPC when combining ADT with apalutamide ?

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TITAN

prostate cancer
prostate cancer

What is the dose of apalutamide used in mCSPC ?

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240mg daily

prostate cancer
prostate cancer

Is abiraterone or enzalutamide a steroidal comopund ?

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abiraterone!
enzalutamide is an amide, non-steroidal

prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What radiation dose and frequency is used for symptomatic metastases treatment in prostate cancer?

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8000 cGy for 1 dose

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

Which risk strata of prostate cancer patients receive 4-6 months versus 3 years of adjuvant androgen
deprivation therapy with radiotherapy?

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Intermediate risk 4-6 months
High and very high risk 3 years

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What is the AST/ALT cut-off for using abiraterone?

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8x upper limit or normal

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What are the minimum liver function tests required prior to starting docetaxel?

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Bilirubin less than 1.5
AST and ALT less than 2x ULN

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

Can you expect to see a reduction in PSA with sipuleucil-T?

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No

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What role does abiraterone have for first line therapy in prostate cancer?

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metastatic castration resistant and sensitive prostate cancer

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What PSA doubling time should be used when deciding to add oral antiandrogen such as bicalutamide
therapy to androgen deprivation therapy?

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10 months

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What can be done if patient has rising PSA while on ADT + bicalutamide?

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Bicalutamide withdrawal

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

Which enzymes does abiraterone inhibit ?

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17, 20 lyase
17–alpha–hydroxylase

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What are some examples of anti-androgens used in prostate cancer?

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Bicalutamide, nilutamide, flutamide

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

In the castration resistant setting, what 2 criteria are used to determine treatment ?

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The presence of metastases and the presence of symptoms

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What doubling time cut off in the context of biochemical failure warrants observation?

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12 months

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

Can you re-challenge with docetaxel in metastatic prostate cancer?

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Yes

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

How many cycles of docetaxel should be given ideally in a patient with metastatic prostate cancer ?

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Up to 10 if the patient can tolerate it

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

How can you salvage a rising PSA after radiotherapy if surgery is not an option ?

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Cryosurgery

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

Which patients have improved overall survival with continuous androgen deprivation therapy versus
intermittent?

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Gleason score 8, 9, 10 but this was only a subset analysis

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

With did the clinical trials for intermittent versus continuous androgen deprivation therapy for
metastatic disease reveal ?

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Cannot rule out inferiority of intermittent ADT treatment

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

Which patient should be considered for intermittent androgen operation therapy ?

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PSA relapse after definitive radiotherapy without metastatic disease

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

How much radiotherapy should be given in the salvage setting for prostate cancer ?

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6400-7200 cGy

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

Which patients can be considered for intermittent androgen deprivation therapy ?

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Intermediate risk, Gleason score < 8

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What is the difference in overall survival between intermittent versus continuous androgen deprivation
therapy from meta-analyses?

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No difference in overall survival

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

How can you manage N1 patients after radical prostatectomy?

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Continuous androgen deprivation therapy

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What are the indications for postoperative radiotherapy for prostate cancer ?

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Positive margins, Gleason score 8/9/10, seminal vesicle involvement, pathologic T3 disease or T4

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What bone marrow reserve is required prior to treating with Radium 223?

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Hemoglobin greater than 10 g/dL, ANC greater than 1500, platelets greater than 100,000

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What are the mechanisms of action for ketoconazole in prostate cancer management ?

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Inhibits steroid synthesis as well as a cytotoxic effect on prostate cancer cells

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What formally defines biochemical failure after radiotherapy for prostate cancer?

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2 ng/mL above the nadir

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What predicts for salvage radiotherapy success in prostate cancer?

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Low PSA pretreatment, long doubling time in the pretreatment setting

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

Is there an improvement in overall survival with the use of Radium 223?

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Yes

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

Up to have many cGy of definitive XRT can be given in high risk and very high-risk prostate cancer ?

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8100 cGy

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What life expectancy for patients with low risk prostate cancer is required to defer from further
imaging?

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5 years, if low and intermediate risk and life expectancy less than 5 years, then no further imaging
required

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

When would you consider a CT scan or MRI versus a bone scan for prostate cancer?

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T3 disease, T4 disease, T1-T2 and nomogram with at least a 10% lymph node metastatic probability

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

What are the indications for performing a nuclear bone scan in newly diagnosed prostate cancer ?

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T1 disease and PSA >/= 20
T2 and PSA >/=10
Gleason score >/= 8
T3, T4 disease, presence of symptoms

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

Which risk strata of patients can be considered for observation?

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very low risk, low risk, intermediate risk

Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer

Which risk strata of prostate cancer can undergo active surveillance?

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Very low risk and low risk

Prostate cancer
Pharmacology Part 3

What it the payload in Sacituzumab ?

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Govitecan = SN-38

Pharmacology Part 3
Pharmacology

What it another name for govitecan ?

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SN-38, active metabolite of irinotecan

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the intracellular target of Sacituzumab’s payload ?

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Topo – I

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the cell surface target of Sacituzumab ?

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Trop-2

Pharmacology
pharmacology

what is the target of tociluzimab used for cytokine storm in CAR-T therapy ?

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IL-6R

pharmacology
Pharmacology

What clinical benefit rate has been reported in adrenocortical carcinoma?

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50-60%

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Is there activity with PDL1 targeting therapies in metastatic adrenocortical carcinoma?

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Yes

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Can benign serum abnormalities can be seen with GM-CSF injections?

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Yes, LDH and alkaline phosphatase elevations

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How is Ixempra cleared?

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By the liver

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which cytogentic change is seen with etoposide related AML?

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MLL

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

FOLFOX+Bevacizumab regimen – which agent would require renal dosing?

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Oxaliplatin

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which taxane requires renal dose adjustment?

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Docetaxel

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which agent causes infusion reactions in FOLFOX?

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Oxaliplatin

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the second reason besides infusion reactions were dexamethasone is given with paclitaxel?

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Fluid retention

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What 2 major endocrine side effects are seen with everolimus?

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Hyperlipidemia and hyperglycemia

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What prophylaxis is needed with VRd for multiple myeloma?

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Acyclovir

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which pre-medications are required prior to Bevacizumab?

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None

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which cardiovascular side effects is seen with Vandetinib?

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Prolonged QTC

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What percent chance nausea vomiting, notes an increase in emetogenic potential?

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Greater than or equal to 90%

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What percentage reduction in nausea and vomiting occurs when olanzapine is added to cisplatin ?

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30% absolute reduction
75% to 45% reduction

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What second line treatment is used, post steroids, for CTLA-4 induced colitis ?

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Infliximab

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

When is Ixbepalone used for breast cancer?

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After exposure to an anthracycline and taxane

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which cell surface targets does CTLA-4 interact with?

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B7-1 and B7-2

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How many months of entecavir therapy is ideal for patients require anti-CD20 therapy who are hepatitis B surface antigen positive?

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6 at 12 months

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which SNRI works best for oxaliplatin-induced neuropathy?

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Duloxetine

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is unique and rare side effect for cladribine used in hairy cell leukemia?

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Cytokine release syndrome

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the antidote for capecitabine or 5-FU overdose?

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Uridine Triacetate

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which medication has proven efficacy for chemotherapy-induced neuropathy prevention?

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View Question

None

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How much of a Bilirurbin increase can be tolerated with gemcitabine/abraxane?

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1.5 times the upper limit of normal

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How do you treat severe anthracycline extravasation?

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Dexrazosone

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which chemotherapy agents are vesicants?

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Anthracyclines and Vinca alkaloids

Pharmacology
Pharmacology Part 4

Pharmacology Part 4

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Pharmacology Part 4

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology

What weight cut-off is used to select the 200 versus 300 mg dosing for niraprib ?

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77 kg

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What platelet cutoff is used to select between the 200 versus 300 mg dosing for niraprib ?

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View Question

150k

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How many years of maintenance therapy with niraprib should be considered for patients with a complete response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy platinum based chemotherapy in stage III or IV epithelial ovarian cancer?

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View Question

3 years

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What criteria can be used to opt for extended therapy with niraprib in the maintenance setting for epithelial ovarian cancer?

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Only a partial response to platinum based chemotherapy

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How soon should niraprib be started after completion of platinum based chemotherapy in the maintenance setting for epithelial ovarian cancer?

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View Question

8 weeks

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Is a dose adjustment required for niraprib in patients with a creatinine clearance between 30-60 mL/minute?

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View Question

No

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Is a dose adjustment required for niraprib in patients with a creatinine clearance less than 30 mL/minute?

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View Question

No data available

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What bilirubin level warrants a dose reduction for niraprib ?

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View Question

Between 1.5 and 3 x ULN

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Can niraprib be administered with or without food?

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View Question

Both are acceptable

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

How common is hypertension with niraprib ?

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20%

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the most common electrolyte abnormality seen with niraprib ?

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View Question

Hypomagnesemia seen in up to 40% of patients

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the most common endocrine abnormality seen with niraprib ?

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View Question

Hyperglycemia

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What nervous system abnormalities are seen in more than 20% of patients utilizing niraprib ?

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View Question

Dizziness/fatigue/headache/insomnia

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which antipsychotic agent should be avoided in patients utilizing niraprib ?

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View Question

Clozapine given the risk of profound myelosuppression

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which vaccinations should be avoided in patients utilizing niraprib ?

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Live vaccines such as measles-mumps-rubella

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Is niraprib a teratogen?

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View Question

Yes

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which central nervous system side effects should be considered in patients treated with carboplatin-containing products?

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View Question

Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the Calvert formula for carboplatin dosing?

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View Question

Total dose (mg) = target AUC X (GFR +25)

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which GFR cap should be used for carboplatin target AUC calculations?

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View Question

125 mL/min

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What dose reductions should be considered for carboplatin in patients with impaired renal function?

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View Question

250 mg/m² for creatinine clearance between 41 and 59 mL/min and 200 mg/m² for creatinine clearance between 16 and 40 mL/min

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which metal should be avoided with IV administration kits when utilizing carboplatin?

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View Question

Aluminum as it can result in platinum precipitation

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which electrolyte abnormality is the most common with carboplatin?

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View Question

Hyponatremia – can be seen in up to 50%

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which hematologic toxicity has the highest grade 3/4 incidence with carboplatin?

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View Question

Thrombocytopenia which can occur in up to 35% of patients

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Which vaccine should be avoided during carboplatin administration?

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View Question

Live vaccines such as MMR and varicella

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

Is carboplatin a teratogen ?

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View Question

Yes

Pharmacology
Pharmacology

What is the mechanism of action of carboplatin?

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View Question

Produces interstrand DNA cross-links

Pharmacology
Pharmacology Part 4

Pharmacology Part 4

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View Question

Pharmacology Part 4

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is the binding Ligand for HER-2/neu?

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View Question

It does not have one – it is activated as a head of her dimer with other targets such as HER3 HER4 and EGFR

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Can Her2 form homodimers ?

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View Question

No

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Which gene encodes her2/neu ?

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View Question

ERBB2

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Which pathways does the MET receptor activate downstream ?

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View Question

Beta-catenin / RAS / PI3K / SRC / MAP

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is another name for c-MET ?

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Hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) receptor

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Which agent used in HCC has activity against RET ?

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View Question

sorafenib

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Which agent used in CML has activity against RET ?

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View Question

ponatinib

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Which RET fusion partner has been identified in colorectal cancer?

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View Question

CCDC6

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What does RET stand for ?

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View Question

REarranged during Transfection protein

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Is the NFkB pathway important in solid tumor malignancies?

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View Question

Yes because it helps induce apoptosis

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is the purpose of the NF B pathway?

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View Question

Regulates the expression of immunoglobulin kappa chain and B cells

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Which protein mediates the signaling between the Fas receptor and the mitochondria to induce apoptosis?

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View Question

BID

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is another name for the Fas receptor?

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Tumor necrosis factor receptor super family member #6

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What are some examples of death receptors?

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View Question

TNF-R / DR3 / DR 3

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Which intranuclear protein does retinoblastoma bind to?

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View Question

E2F complex

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Do PARP inhibitors work in the cytoplasm or nucleus?

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View Question

Nucleus

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What percentage of breast cancer cases in women are secondary to BRCA1/2 mutations?

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View Question

5 to 10%

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Are single strand or double strands repaired by BRCA?

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View Question

Double-strand

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Are single strand or double strands repaired by PARP1 ?

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View Question

Single-stranded

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What are some another name for B7?

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View Question

CD 80 for B7–1 and CD86 for B7-2

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Is PD1 found on immune cells or tumor cells?

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Immune cells

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Is CTLA4 found on tumor cells or immune cells?

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Immune cells

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is the target of CTLA4?

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B7

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Does niraprib target PARP 1 or 2 ?

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Both

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What type of the immunoglobulin is nivolumab?

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IgG4

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What other protein does nilotinib target besides BCR–ABL?

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KIT

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Is neratinib a reversible or irreversible EGFR inhibitor?

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Irreversible

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What other protein does ruxolitinib target besides JAK2?

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JAK1

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Which electrolyte abnormality can be seen with Salinexor?

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Hyponatremia

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What can exacerbate osteonecrosis while on sunitinib?

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Concurrent bisphosphonate use

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is a black box warning for sunitinib?

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Hepatotoxicity

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is the recommended dosing and frequency of sunitinib for metastatic RCC?

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50 mg daily for 4 weeks with a 2-week break

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What are some protein targets of sunitinib?

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PDGFR / VEGFR / KIT / RET

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is a black box warning for trastuzumab?

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Pneumonitis

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Can trastuzumab lead to embryo-fetal toxicity?

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Yes

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

How often should an echocardiogram be performed in patients receiving trastuzumab?

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Every 2 months

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is a black box warning for vandetanib?

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QT prolongation

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Which lung cancer patients would be ideal for being treated with a vandetanib?

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RET mutated non-small cell lung cancer

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What are some protein targets of vandetanib?

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VEGFR2 / EGFR / RET

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is a black box warning for vismodegib?

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Fetal toxicity

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is the target of vismodegib?

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Hedgehog signaling cell surface receptor PTCH

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is the most common side effect with vorinostat?

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Fatigue

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is the dosing and frequency of vorinostat?

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400 mg once daily

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Which ion is chelated with vorinostat as part of its mechanism?

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Zinc

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What are some black box warnings for ziv-aflibercept?

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Gastrointestinal perforation and wound healing delay

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

What is the dose and frequency of ziv-aflibercept?

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4 mg/kg every 2 weeks

Pharmacology Part 4
Pharmacology Part 4

Pharmacology flashcards

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Pharmacology flashcards

Pharmacology Part 4
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Column1

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Column2

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Pharmacology Part 4

Pharmacology Part 4

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Pharmacology Part 4

Pharmacology Part 4
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